Leaky, single target, variable dose-coding toxic spike protein jab design by the first four “competing” companies getting FDA emergency authorization is just a coincidence, right? (Updated 6/16/22)
Dr. Peter McCullough insists respiratory diseases really do not spread asymptomatically. Could one of the "features" of the vaccines, since they reduce illness, actually enable asymptomatic infectious spread?
“[W]e suggest that asymptomatic individuals are infectious during the early stage of infection, but some rare cases (3/100,000) become long-term virus carriers which are no longer infectious. This would reconcile the Wuhan post-lockdown study [finding zero asymptomatic transmission cases] with the other studies including the one from Luxembourg.”
Can anyone please explain how the vaccines could be said to be reducing illness, when 90% of Covid-related deaths are occurring among the fully vaccinated?
Granted, I hail from a small town, but back home "reduced illness" isn't celebrated by a wake and graveside Invocation.
One must consider the fraction of deaths (or hospitalizations, etc.) among the vaccinated relative to the fraction of the vaccinated among a population. This could be done by dividing one fraction by the other.
For example, if 90% of deaths are in the vaccinated, but 95% of the population is vaccinated, then (because 0.9/0.95 < 1) the vaccine would arguably be slightly protective, all other things being equal (which they’re not).
On the other hand, if 90% of deaths are in the vaccinated, but 40% of the population is vaccinated, then (because 0.9/0.4 > 1) the vaccine would appear to be harmful, such as by causing vaccine enhanced disease (VED), of which antibody dependent enhancement (ADE) is a type.
How long does it take to make a dose and how many doses were distributed at authorization? Do the numbers indicate everything was produced after authorization, or before? Would their preparation beforehand suggest planning or preparation prior to the pandemic starting?🤔
D. "making vaccines reduce illness..."
Dr. Peter McCullough insists respiratory diseases really do not spread asymptomatically. Could one of the "features" of the vaccines, since they reduce illness, actually enable asymptomatic infectious spread?
Some have argued the vaccine causes or increases asymptomatic transmission. I have not yet seen data to support this.
The CDC says the opposite:
“[A] growing body of evidence suggests that COVID-19 vaccines also reduce asymptomatic infection and transmission.”
https://www.cdc.gov/coronavirus/2019-ncov/science/science-briefs/fully-vaccinated-people.html
A large Wuhan study found no asymptomatic transmission among 1,174 close contacts of 300 asymptomatic PCR-positive cases.
https://www.nature.com/articles/s41467-020-19802-w
But a 2021 Lancet article says:
“[W]e suggest that asymptomatic individuals are infectious during the early stage of infection, but some rare cases (3/100,000) become long-term virus carriers which are no longer infectious. This would reconcile the Wuhan post-lockdown study [finding zero asymptomatic transmission cases] with the other studies including the one from Luxembourg.”
https://www.thelancet.com/journals/lanepe/article/PIIS2666-7762(21)00059-4/fulltext
Thank you. This is excellent information!
Can anyone please explain how the vaccines could be said to be reducing illness, when 90% of Covid-related deaths are occurring among the fully vaccinated?
Granted, I hail from a small town, but back home "reduced illness" isn't celebrated by a wake and graveside Invocation.
https://rielpolitik.com/2022/03/15/eugenics-dr-joseph-mercola-9-in-10-covid-deaths-are-in-vaccinated-people/
One must consider the fraction of deaths (or hospitalizations, etc.) among the vaccinated relative to the fraction of the vaccinated among a population. This could be done by dividing one fraction by the other.
For example, if 90% of deaths are in the vaccinated, but 95% of the population is vaccinated, then (because 0.9/0.95 < 1) the vaccine would arguably be slightly protective, all other things being equal (which they’re not).
On the other hand, if 90% of deaths are in the vaccinated, but 40% of the population is vaccinated, then (because 0.9/0.4 > 1) the vaccine would appear to be harmful, such as by causing vaccine enhanced disease (VED), of which antibody dependent enhancement (ADE) is a type.
How long does it take to make a dose and how many doses were distributed at authorization? Do the numbers indicate everything was produced after authorization, or before? Would their preparation beforehand suggest planning or preparation prior to the pandemic starting?🤔
Good questions. Wish we had the answers.